I don't know what creed you are talking about dude. Did I start a topic propagating some creed? Suddenly the passages I questioned are small and unimportant? Jesus calling people who are not Jewish pigs, dogs, pricks, swine, etc. are small and unimportant? For your information, that is called bigotry to say the least.
You may post other passages that contradict those passages but they don't eliminate them. Just like you have a first amendment right, so do others. It would have been more ingenious if you had addressed the passages I commented on instead of diverting to other ones. It is your topic and what you want to propagate so it is your burden not mine.
Where have I not address your questions?
I asked for your thoughts not what the Bible states. Lets do them again.
1. The Bible states that God told Abraham to take his ONLY son, Isaac. This was supposedly done when Isaac was a teenager. Now at the time that Isaac was a teenager, Ishmael was also Abraham's son and in his twenties. Was the Bible wrong to state that Isaac was at that time Abraham's ONLY son or was God wrong to do so?
What do you know, my family is away and I decided to check in an there is a slew of questions from you my friend ksazma. Lucky for you I've time to entertain your juvenile questions.
Answer: I am going let you answer this yourself. When God said to Abraham, "take thy ONLY son whom you love" was Ishmael living or was he in the company of Abraham at that time?
2. Jesus called non-Jews dogs, pigs, pricks, swine, etc. He also ignored anyone who was not Jewish scoffing at them and stating that he was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the House of Israel. Two questions. Was Jesus bigoted to do so and was he also one of horrible attitudes and disposition to call others horrible names?
Answer: Well, let's define for the sake of those looking on and don't know, "bigot" means "a person who strongly and unfairly dislikes other people, ideas, etc.," according to the Webster Dictionary.
Answering this question, once taking into account the Matthew 5:17-19 passage, would depend on how Jesus Christ reacted to those with whom he disagreed.
Examples for how Christ dealt with sin in the Bible include the woman who was caught in the act of adultery; Christ’s handling of Zacchaeus, a corrupt tax collector; and his reaction to traders in the temple court.
For the adulterous woman, whom law dictated should be stoned to death, Christ said the man without sin should cast the first stone, knowing that no one could under such a directive. Each man left until the woman was the only one remaining. While this appears merciful on the surface, he did leave her with a warning, "Go forth and sin no more."
For Zacchaeus, once again Christ forgave the tax collector’s sins, but only noted that salvation had come to his house after he decided to make good on any and all persons he’d cheated in his time in the position (Luke 19:1-10).
Finally, for the traders who were conducting commerce in the temple courts, "he made a whip out of cords, and drove all from the temple courts, both sheep and cattle; he scattered the coins of the money-changers and overturned their tables. To those who sold doves he said, ‘Get these out of here! Stop turning my Father’s house into a market!'" (John 2:15-16).
Understand this, Jesus Christ had a forgiving and loving side, but that was tempered by an intolerance for wrongdoing. In other words, while he would hang out with prostitutes and tax collectors, his mission was not to appease, tolerate, or condone what they did, but to change their hearts and behaviors.
He was accepting of them, but not of their sin.
So does that make Jesus Christ a bigot ksazma? Whatever you think will obviously depend on your own system of values and beliefs.
3. We are told that Jesus can provide for us. Yet we see many instances in the Bible of him constantly complaining about the possessions of others lamenting that he doesn't even have a place to rest his head. Was Jesus covetous to the point of acknowledging that the things people have are theirs and it is not his place to just envy them? Wouldn't it be better if he would have changed his situation by maybe getting a more rewarding occupation than just being a fisherman?
Answer: First of all if you had read the Bible as you claim many time you will note that no where in the Bible speak of Jesus occupation. Secondly, show us where Jesus was covetous envy of others? Don't bother, it don't exist.
God created us to love people and use things, but a materialist loves things and uses people. There is nothing wrong with having possessions and a successful career. The apostle Paul wrote, "Command those who are rich in this present age not to be haughty, nor to trust in uncertain riches but in the living God, who gives us richly all things to enjoy" (1 Timothy 6:17). God can bless a person.
Jesus did not extol poverty as some great virtue. In fact, He tell someone, the rich young ruler to sell his possessions and give to the poor. When Jesus said, "If you want to be perfect, go, sell what you have and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; and come, follow Me” (Matthew 19:21), the Bible says that he went away sorrowful. It was a test to see whether God was more important to him than his things.
Money is not the root of all evil; the love of it is. The problem with wealth is not in having it. It is how we get it. It is how we guard it. And it is how we give it.
4. While on the cross, Jesus is heard asking God why He forsook him? Two questions. Didn't Jesus have enough faith and trust in God to know that God would not forsake him and secondly wasn't Jesus supposed to already know about how things will go on the cross and shouldn't have been so surprised or unprepared?
Answer: "My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?" This cry is a fulfillment of Psalm 22:1, one of many parallels between that psalm and the specific events of the crucifixion. It is difficult to understand in what sense Jesus was "forsaken" by God. It is certain that God approved His work.
Jesus quoted this Psalm 22:1 in order to draw attention to it and the fact that He was fulfilling it there on the cross. In your spare time read the Psalms 22:11-18.
Your quote: "Jesus supposed to already know about how things will go on the cross"
The gospels contain an account of the time the disciples and Jesus spent in the Garden of Gethsemane, just before Jesus was arrested. In the garden Jesus prayed to his Father three times, saying, "My Father, if it is possible, may this cup be taken from me. Yet not as I will, but as you will" In Matthew 26:39 says, "Let this cup pass from me". A little later, Jesus prays, "My Father, if it is not possible for this cup to be taken away unless I drink it, may your will be done" (Matthew 26:42). These prayers reveal Jesus’ mindset just before the crucifixion and His total submission to the will of God.
What cup you might ask am I talking about. The "cup" to which Jesus refers is the suffering He was about to endure. It’s as if Jesus were being handed a cup full of bitterness with the expectation that He drink all of it. Jesus had used the same metaphor in Matthew 20:22 when prophesying of the future suffering of James and John. When Jesus petitions the Father, "Let this cup pass from me," He expresses the natural human desire to avoid pain and suffering. In a nutshell nothing was a surprise to Jesus.
5. Lastly and this is less of an issue but it came up because Imran somehow suggested that discourses about God should be civil and decent. So I responded by posting Ezekiel 20 to demonstrate how God talks and describes things. We see in Ezekiel 20 that God is talking about the two sisters who are whores. He went on to describe how they like their nipples bruised and their vaginas abused. He even elaborated that they like penis large like that of horses with huge ejaculations (just paraphrasing). Question. What was God trying to convey here and was this the best use of His vast wisdom and vocabulary? Couldn't He have been more selective in the words and descriptions He chooses? Lots of people are over obsessive with large penises. Was God also that obsessive or was it the writers?
I am not interested in you posting passages from the Bible. I already know what the bible says. I am interested in your opinions of these for that is the only way to further the discussion. If you say that the Bible says so. That would be the end of the discussion because the Bible isn't here to explain itself. You are.
Answer: Here is my question for you. Who God was referring to in Ezekiel 23? I expect you to know since you confess that you read the Bible and know what it says. Therefore enlighten us of your understanding of this chapter of Ezekiel 23. I can only my opinion if you have understanding of what you read.