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Reply to "On a recent show on Moody Radio ....."

ksazma posted:

the host stated that the Bible is filled with stories of people sinning and because of these sins, they are not in a position to gain God's favors (or something like that). My question is why is God so arrogant that He will consider Himself to pristine that His own creation are considered with so much disdain by Him. If God is such a perfect creator, how did He end up creating such a creature that even Him cannot reconcile with.

Answer: This is a two part question. The first part is "Why is God so arrogant", the answer lies in what the Bible teaches about God's knowledge. We know from Scripture that God is omniscient, which literally means "all-knowing.", Scripture references: Job 37:16; Psalm 139:2-4, 147:5; Proverbs 5:21; Isaiah 46:9-10; and 1 John 3:19-20 leave no doubt that God's knowledge is infinite and that He knows everything that has happened in the past, is happening now, and will happen in the future.

Looking at some of the superlatives of those verses mention above "perfect in knowledge"; "his understanding has no limit"; "he knows everything" it is clear that God's knowledge is not merely greater than our own, but it is infinitely greater. He knows all things in totality. Isaiah 46:10 declares He not only knows everything, but He controls everything as well. How else could He "make known" to us what would happen in the future and state unequivocally that His plans will come to pass? So, did God know that man were going to sin? Yes! Absolutely! Were they out of His control at any time? Absolutely not. If God's knowledge is not perfect, then there is a deficiency in His nature. Any deficiency in God's nature means He cannot be God, for God's very essence requires the perfection of all His attributes.

We have already seen that God is omniscient and nothing can happen outside of His knowledge. So, if God knew that man would sin, yet He created man anyway, it must mean that the fall of mankind was part of God's sovereign plan from the beginning. No other answer makes sense given what we have mention
thus far.

Now we must be careful to note that man falling into sin does not mean that God is the author of sin, nor that he tempted man to sin (James 1:13). The fall serves the purpose of God's overall plan for creation and mankind. This, again, must be the case, or else the fall of mankind would never have happened.

Moving on to the second part of the question, "reconcile", as you alluded too below, when Christ died on the cross, He satisfied God's judgment and made it possible for God's enemies, us, to find peace with Him. Our "reconciliation" to God, then, involves the exercise of His grace and the forgiveness of our sin. We were in a state of condemnation because of our sins, but we are now forgiven. We were at war with God, but now have the peace that transcends all understanding (Philippians 4:7).

So to make His initial screw-up right, He sent His son to die for those sins. Since it was Him who screwed up His creation, why didn't He come Himself to die for those sins that were committed because He screwed up His perfect creation? And even after His son's blood was shed, sins continued to occur which proves that even His decision to send His son to die was a mistake. Lots of mistakes from one who is supposed to be so perfect.

Why didn't God just do like any other reasonable person and say. I did not create a perfect creation and since it is not of their own fault, I will forgive them and continue to do so since I made the ultimate error? Being one who knows all things, He should have already known that sending His son to die will not remove sins one bit as we see today, there are even more people committing sins than when He sent His son.

Question: Before I answer your questions above talk to me about the attributes of the God you serve.

I think that this whole Biblical concept about sins is nonsense.

 

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