Now go read John 14:27-31. KJV.
Thanks for posting it now if I can get you to do this simple thing. Where is the contradiction you speak about that I am yet to see.
You see that was not hard to post.
Do you understand John 14:27-31?
Question: "If Jesus was God, why did He say "The Father is greater than I" in John 14:28?"
The phrase "the Father is greater than I" (John 14:28) was spoken by Jesus. Jesus says repeatedly that He is doing the Father’s will, thereby implying that He is somehow subservient to the Father. The question then becomes how can Jesus be equal to God when by His own admission He is subservient to the will of God? The answer to this question lies within the nature of the incarnation (born of a virgin, you know the story). During the incarnation, Jesus was temporarily "made lower than the angels" you will find that in Hebrews 2:9, which refers to Jesus’ status.
Therefore, the fact that the Son took on a human nature and made Himself subservient to the Father in no way denies the deity of the Son, nor does it diminish His essential equality with the Father. The "greatness" spoken of in this verse, then, relates to role, not to essence.
I will stop here before you mind blow ksazma. I don't what to get too lengthy as you put it. It's a discussion not a sermon.